Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?
08.06.2025 08:23
Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.
Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.
While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.
Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.
There's no rule.
What's (not “whats”) the rule?
When British people write X after everything, are they being serious or trying not to be awkward?
If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.
You'll usually find your answer there.
Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.
Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.